Heathkit 2008 schematic

2008 Extra Class Question Pool (UPDATE 02/20/2008)

The 2008 Element 4 (Extra Class) question pool is hereby released to public use.
This pool will become effective for examinations given on or after July 1, 2008, and
will remain active until replaced by a subsequent version. As of this writing, this
pool is scheduled to be in service until June 30, 2012.

See next page for a list of corrections and updates as of 02/20/2008

Whenever possible, we have included references to the FCC rules for most of the
questions in section E1. The citations are included only as a guideline, and while
the QPC has made reasonable efforts to insure accuracy, we do not guarantee that such
citations are accurate and/or complete.

Any graphics required for the questions are included at the end of this document, or
are available as a separate file from NCVEC.ORG To assist in viewing fine details
of some of the drawings associated with certain questions, we recommend increasing
the "zoom" factor to 200% (or larger) when viewing the associated graphic.

While every effort was made to insure the accuracy of the material herein, this
material was prepared by ordinary human beings, and there is always the possibility
that a few typographical or other errors may remain. Users are authorized to make
whatever typographic corrections that may be needed, keeping in mind that the basic
meaning of a question, answer, or distractor must remain intact. The QPC would
appreciate notification of any such errors.

There are 738 questions in the pool as released.

Please refer any questions to the QPC, by e-mail, to [e-mail]

20 December 2007

Jim Wiley, KL7CC
Chairman, NCVEC Question Pool Committee
Anchorage VEC

QPC members:
Roland Anders, K3RA, Laurel VEC
Perry Green, WY1O, ARRL VEC
Larry Pollock, NB5X, W5YI VEC

The QPC would like to make special note of the assistance provided by:
Tom Fuszard, KF9PU, Milwaukee VEC
Gordon West, WB6NOA
Ward Silver, N0AX, ARRL
John Johnson, W3BE
WCARS VEC
GLAARG VEC
Michael Fox, W6MJF
Pete Trotter, Master Publishing

We also acknowledge assistance from:
The ARRL (several persons)
Proof-readers from many different VECs
Interested hams everywhere who submitted questions and comments, many of which were
adopted into this new pool

Updates and corrections to 2008 Extra class pool

The following corrections, deletions, and updates have been incorporated in this
version of the pool. Please use this version for preparing exams and related
materials.

The following 8 questions were reported as having a problem by one or more persons.
However, after further review by the QPC, these questions were determined to be
correct as written:

E1C05
E1D01
E3B09
E4C08
E5C13
E6D01
E6D02
E7H05

The following questions were edited or deleted:

E2B08 – missing "period" following "A" in first distractor – corrected

E2E10 – this question was removed by the QPC – do not renumber section

E5C14 – Correct answer "D" should read: "Polar coordinates" instead of "Rectangular
coordinates" – corrected

E5D05 – answers "A" and "B" edited as follows:

A. Electric current flow through the space around a permanent magnet
B. The region surrounding a magnet through which a magnetic force acts

E7F07 inserted missing word "of" in second line of question. Question now reads:

Which type of circuit would be a good choice for generating a
series of harmonically related receiver calibration signals?

E8C04 – this question was removed by the QPC – do not renumber section

E9C16 – this question was removed by the QPC – do not renumber section

E9E04 – typo in question number, shows as E90E04, corrected to E9E04

E9H – Sub-element title was incorrect. Correct version should read as follows:

E9H Effective radiated power; system gains and losses; radio direction finding
antennas

E9H12 – typo in distractor "B" (remove word "with", between "balanced" and "against")

E0 – no section title. Correct section title reads as follows:

SUBELEMENT E0 -- Safety [1 exam question -- 1 group]

ELEMENT 4 - EXTRA CLASS QUESTION POOL

Valid July 1, 2008 through June 30, 2012

SYLLABUS

SUBELEMENT E1 -– COMMISSION’S RULES [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups]

E1A Operating Standards: frequency privileges for Extra Class amateurs; emission
standards; automatic message forwarding; frequency sharing; FCC license actions;
stations aboard ships or aircraft

E1B Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location;
general operating restrictions, spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement;
antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations

E1C Station control: definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and
remote control operation; control operator responsibilities for remote and
automatically controlled stations

E1D Amateur Satellite service: definitions and purpose; license requirements for
space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry
operations; restrictions, and special provisions; notification requirements

E1E Volunteer examiner program: definitions, qualifications, preparation and
administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements

E1F Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; Line A; national quiet zone;
business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary
stations; reciprocal operating privileges; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party
communications with foreign countries; special temporary authority

SUBELEMENT E2 -- OPERATING PRACTICES AND PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups]

E2A Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and
modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations

E2B Television practices: fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan
television standards and techniques

E2C Operating methods, part 1: contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum
transmissions; automatic HF forwarding; selecting an operating frequency

E2D Operating methods, part 2: VHF and UHF digital modes; packet clusters; Automatic
Position Reporting System (APRS)

E2E Operating methods, part 3: operating HF digital modes; error correction

SUBELEMENT E3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]

E3A Propagation and technique, part 1: Earth-Moon-Earth communications; meteor
scatter

E3B Propagation and technique, part 2: transequatorial; long path; gray line; multi­path propagation

E3C Propagation and technique, part 3: Auroral propagation; selective fading; radio­path horizon; take-off angle over flat or sloping terrain; earth effects on
propagation; less common propagation modes

SUBELEMENT E4 -- AMATEUR RADIO TECHNOLOGY AND MEASUREMENTS [5 Exam Questions -- 5
Groups]

E4A Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum and network analyzers,
antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; testing transistors; RF measurements

E4B Measurement technique and limitations: instrument accuracy and performance
limitations; probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of "Q"; instrument
calibration

E4C Receiver performance characteristics, part 1: phase noise, capture effect, noise
floor, image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity

E4D Receiver performance characteristics, part 2: blocking dynamic range,
intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; 3rd order intercept;
desensitization; preselection

E4E Noise suppression: system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise; locating
noise sources; DSP noise reduction; noise blankers

SUBELEMENT E5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups]

E5A Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits: series and parallel
resonance; Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits

E5B Time constants and phase relationships: R/L/C time constants: definition; time
constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current; phase
angles of series and parallel circuits

E5C Impedance plots and coordinate systems: plotting impedances in polar coordinates;
rectangular coordinates

E5D AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic
fields; reactive power; power factor; coordinate systems

SUBELEMENT E6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups]

E6A Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials (germanium, silicon,
P-type, N-type); transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, power; field-effect
transistors: enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel

E6B Semiconductor diodes

E6C Integrated circuits: TTL digital integrated circuits; CMOS digital integrated
circuits; gates

E6D Optical devices and toroids: vidicon and cathode-ray tube devices; charge-coupled
devices (CCDs); liquid crystal displays (LCDs); toroids: permeability, core material,
selecting, winding

E6E Piezoelectric crystals and MMICS: quartz crystals (as used in oscillators and
filters); monolithic amplifiers (MMICs)

E6F Optical components and power systems: photoconductive principles and effects,
photovoltaic systems, optical couplers, optical sensors, and optoisolators

SUBELEMENT E7 -- PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [8 Exam Questions -- 8 Groups]

E7 Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and logic circuits: classes of logic
elements; positive and negative logic; frequency dividers; truth tables

E7B Amplifiers: Class of operation; vacuum tube and solid-state circuits; distortion
and intermodulation; spurious and parasitic suppression; microwave amplifiers

E7C Filters and matching networks: filters and impedance matching networks: types of
networks; types of filters; filter applications; filter characteri stics; impedance
matching; DSP filtering

E7D Power supplies and voltage regulators

E7E Modulation and demodulation: reactance, phase and balanced modulators; detectors;
mixer stages; DSP modulation and demodulation; software defined radio systems

E7F Frequency markers and counters: frequency divider circuits; frequency marker
generators; frequency counters

E7G Active filters and op-amps: active audio filters; characteristics; basic circuit
design; operational amplifiers

E7H Oscillators and signal sources: types of oscillators;
synthesizers and phase-locked loops; direct digital synthesizers

SUBELEMENT E8 -- SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups]

E8A AC waveforms: sine, square, sawtooth and irregular waveforms; AC measurements;
average and PEP of RF signals; pulse and digital signal waveforms

E8B Modulation and demodulation: modulation methods; modulation index and deviation
ratio; pulse modulation; frequency and time division multiplexing

E8C Digital signals: digital communications modes; CW; information rate vs.
bandwidth; spread-spectrum communications; modulation methods

E8D Waves, measurements, and RF grounding: peak-to-peak values, polarization; RF
grounding

SUBELEMENT E9 -– ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions -- 8 Groups]

E9A Isotropic and gain antennas: definition; used as a standard for comparison;
radiation pattern; basic antenna parameters: radiation resistance and reactance,
gain, beamwidth, efficiency

E9B Antenna patterns: E and H plane patterns; gain as a function of pattern; antenna
design (computer modeling of antennas); Yagi antennas

E9C Wire and phased vertical antennas: beverage antennas; terminated and resonant
rhombic antennas; elevation above real ground; ground effects as related to
polarization; take-off angles

E9D Directional antennas: gain; satellite antennas; antenna beamwidth; losses; SWR
bandwidth; antenna efficiency; shortened and mobile antennas; grounding

E9E Matching: matching antennas to feed lines; power dividers

E9F Transmission lines: characteristics of open and shorted feed lines: 1/8
wavelength; 1/4 wavelength; 1/2 wavelength; feed lines: coax versus open-wire;
velocity factor; electrical length; transformation characteristics of line terminated
in impedance not equal to characteristic impedance

E9G The Smith chart

E9F

SUBELEMENT E0 – Safety - [1 exam question -– 1 group]

E0A Safety: amateur radio safety practices; RF radiation hazards; hazardous materials

ELEMENT 4 - EXTRA CLASS QUESTION POOL

Valid July 1, 2008 through June 30, 2012

741 questions total

SUBELEMENT E1 -– COMMISSION’S RULES [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups]

E1A Operating Standards: frequency privileges for Extra Class amateurs; emission
standards; automatic message forwarding; frequency sharing; FCC license actions;
stations aboard ships or aircraft

E1A01 (D) [97.301, 97.305]
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which
of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal USB emission being
within the band?
A. The exact upper band edge
B. 300 Hz below the upper band edge
C. 1 kHz below the upper band edge
D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge
~~

E1A02 (D) [97.301, 97.305]
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which
of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal LSB emission being
within the band?
A. The exact lower band edge
B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
~~

E1A03 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a
DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper
sideband on the same frequency?
A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
~~

E1A04 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a
DX station's CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband
on the same frequency?
A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
~~

E1A05 (C) [97.305]
Which is the only amateur band that does not permit the transmission of phone or
image emissions?
A. 160 meters
B. 60 meters
C. 30 meters
D. 17 meters
~~

E1A06 (B) [97.303]
What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
~~

E1A07 (D) [97.303]
What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a
range of frequencies is permitted?
A. 12 meter band
B. 17 meter band
C. 30 meter band
D. 60 meter band
~~

E1A08 (C) [97.303]
What is the only emission type permitted to be transmitted on the 60 meter band by an
amateur station?
A. CW
B. RTTY Frequency shift keying
C. Single sideband, upper sideband only
D. Single sideband, lower sideband only
~~

E1A09 (A) [97.301]
Which frequency bands contain at least one segment authorized only to control
operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license?
A. 80/75, 40, 20 and 15 meters
B. 80/75, 40, 20, and 10 meters
C. 80/75, 40, 30 and 10 meters
D. 160, 80/75, 40 and 20 meters
~~

E1A10 (B) [97.219]
If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is
in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B. The control operator of the originating station
C. The control operators of all the stations in the system
D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the
source from which they accept communications
~~

E1A11 (A) [97.219]
What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station
inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC
rules
C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer’s office
D. Discontinue forwarding all messages
~~

E1A12 (A) [97.11]
If an amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft, what condition must
be met before the station is operated?
A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command
of the aircraft
B. The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or
aircraft radios are in use
C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or
aircraft power supply
D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur
license
~~

E1A13 (B) [97.5]
When a US-registered vessel is in international waters, what type of FCC-issued
license or permit is required to transmit amateur communications from an on-board
amateur transmitter?
A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
B. Any amateur license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee
C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses
D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
~~

E1B Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location;
general operating restrictions, spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement;
antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations

E1B01 (D) [97.3]
Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign
identification
B. A signal transmitted in a way that prevents its detection by any stati on other
than the intended recipient
C. Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated
without affecting the information transmitted
~~

E1B02 (D) [97.13]
Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur
station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?
A. The location is in or near an area of political conflict, military maneuvers or
major construction
B. The location's geographical or horticultural importance
C. The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more
foreign governments
D. The location is significant to our environment, American history, architecture, or
culture.
~~

E1B03 (A) [97.13]
Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from
harmful interference?
A. 1 mile
B. 3 miles
C. 10 miles
D. 30 miles
~~

E1B04 (C) [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319]
What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated
wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of
Historical Places?
A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
~~

E1B05 (B) [97.15]
What height restrictions apply to an amateur station antenna structure not close to a
public use airport unless the FAA is notified and it is registered with the FCC?
A. It must not extend more than 300 feet above average height of terrain surrounding
the site
B. It must be no higher than 200 feet above ground level at its site
C. There are no height restrictions because the structure obviously would not be a
hazard to aircraft in flight
D. It must not extend more than 100 feet above sea level or the rim of the nearest
valley or canyon
~~

E1B06 (A) [97.15]
Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur
station antenna at a site within 20,000 feet of a public use airport?
A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with
the FCC
B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in
height
C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction
begins
D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
~~

E1B07 (A) [97.15]
Whose approval is required before erecting an amateur station antenna located at or
near a public use airport if the antenna would exceed a certain height depending upon
the antenna’s distance from the nearest active runway?
A. The FAA must be notified and it must be registered with the FCC
B. Approval must be obtained from the airport manager
C. Approval must be obtained from the local zoning authorities
D. The FAA must approve any antenna structure that is higher than 20 feet
~~

E1B08 (D) [97.121]
On what frequencies may the operation of an amateur station be restricted if its
emissions cause interference to the reception of a domestic broadcast station on a
receiver of good engineering design?
A. On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station
B. On all frequencies below 30 MHz
C. On all frequencies above 30 MHz
D. On the interfering amateur service transmitting frequencies
~~

E1B09 (B) [97.3]
What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?
A. A radio service using amateur service frequencies on a regular basis for
communications that can reasonably be furnished through other radio services
B. A radio service of amateur stations for civil defense communications during
periods of local, regional, or national civil emergencies
C. A radio service using amateur service frequencies for broadcasting to the public
during periods of local, regional or national civil emergencies
D. A radio service using local government frequencies by Amateur Radio operators for
civil emergency communications
~~

E1B10 (C) [97.407]
Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
B. Any FCC-licensed amateur stati on except a Technician class operator's station
C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense
organization for the area served
D. Any FCC-licensed amateur stati on participating in the Military Affiliate Radio
System (MARS)
~~

E1B11 (A) [97.407]
What frequencies are normally authorized to an amateur station participating in
RACES?
A. All amateur service frequencies otherwise authorized to the control operator
B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
C. Specific local government channels
D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
~~

E1B12 (B) [97.407]
What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES
during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force?
A. All frequencies in the amateur service authorized to the control operator
B. Specific amateur service frequency segments authorized in FCC Part 214
C. Specific local government channels
D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
~~

E1B13 (C) [97.407]
What communications are permissible in RACES?
A. Any type of communications when there is no emergency
B. Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications
C. Authorized civil defense emergency communications affecting the immediate safety
of life and property
D. National defense and security communications authorized by the President
~~

E1C LOCAL, REMOTE AND AUTOMATIC CONTROL – 10 questions
Definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and remote control
operation; amateur radio and the Internet; control operator responsibilities for
remote and automatically controlled stations

E1C01 (D) [97.3]
What is a remotely controlled station?
A. A station operated away from its regular home location
B. A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
C. A station operating under automatic control
D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link
~~

E1C02 (A) [97.3, 97.109]

What is meant by automatic control of a station?
A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does
not have to be present at a control point
B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
C. Remotely controlling a station’s antenna pattern through a directional control
link
D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
~~

E1C03 (B) [97.3, 97.109]
How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control
differ from one under local control?
A. Under local control there is no control operator
B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the
control point
C. Under automatic control there is no control operator
D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control
point
~~

E1C04 (B) [97.109]
When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
A. Never
B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
~~

E1C05 (A) [97.109]
When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
A. Never
B. Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
~~

E1C06 (C) [97.109]
Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is
true?
A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
B. A control operator need not be present at the control point
C. A control operator must be present at the control point
D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
~~

E1C07 (C) [97.3]
What is meant by local control?
A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
B. Automatically manipulating local station controls
C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
D. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
~~

E1C08 (B) [97.213]
What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s
transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
A. 30 seconds
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
~~

E1C09 (D) [97.205]
Which of these frequencies are available for automatically controlled ground-station
repeater operation?
A. 18.110 - 18.168 MHz
B. 24.940 - 24.990 MHz
C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz
D. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz
~~

E1C10 (B) [97.113]
What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of
other amateur stations?
A. Only beacon, repeater or space stations
B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
C. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model crafts
D. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
~~

E1D Amateur Satellite service: definitions and purpose; license requirements for
space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry
operations; restrictions, and special provisions; notification requirements

E1D01 (A) [97.3]
What is the definition of the term telemetry?
A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
B. A two-way interactive transmission
C. A two-way single channel transmission of data
D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a
device at a distance
~~

E1D02 (C) [97.3]
What is the amateur-satellite service?
A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self-training,
intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
C. A radio communications service using amateur stations on satellites
D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for weather
information gathering
~~

E1D03 (B) [97.3]
What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
A. An amateur station located on the Earth’s surface for communications with other
Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate
certain functions of a space station
C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth’s surface
D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper
atmosphere data from space
~~

E1D04 (A) [97.3]
What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface for communications with
amateur stations by means of objects in space
B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper
atmosphere data from space
D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
~~

E1D05 (C) [97.207]
What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
A. Any except those of Technicia n Class operators
B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C. A holder of any class of license
D. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
~~

E1D06 (A) [97.207]
Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order
to comply with space station requirements?
A. The space station must be capable of effecting a cessation of transmissions by
telecommand when so ordered by the FCC
B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is
ordered by NASA
D. The station call sign must appear on all sides of the spacecraft
~~

E1D07 (A) [97.207]
Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?
A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
B. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
C. 40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
D. All HF bands
~~

E1D08 (D) [97.207]
Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
A. 6 meters and 2 meters
B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
D. 2 meters
~~

E1D09 (B) [97.207]
Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?
A. 70 cm
B. 70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
C. 70 cm and 33 cm
D. 33 cm and 13 cm
~~

E1D10 (B) [97.211]
Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
A. Any amateur station designated by NASA
B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1D11 (D) [97.209]
Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the
FCC’s International Bureau
B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license
held by the control operator
~~

E1D12 (B) [97.207]
Who must be notified before launching an amateur space station?
A. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration, Houston, TX
B. The FCC’s International Bureau, Washington, DC
C. The Amateur Satellite Corp., Washington, DC
D. All of these answers are correct
~~

E1E Volunteer examiner program: definitions, qualifications, preparation and
administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements

E1E01 (D) [97.509]
What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4
amateur operator license examination?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
~~

E1E02 (C) [97.523]
Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?
A. In FCC Part 97
B. In an FCC-maintained question pool
C. In the VEC-maintained question pool
D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
~~

E1E03 (A) [97.523]
Who is responsible for maintaining the question pools from which all amateur license
examination questions must be taken?
A. All of the VECs
B. The VE team
C. The VE question pool team
D. The FCC’s Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
~~

E1E04 (C) [97.521]
What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate
amateur operator license examinations
D. The person that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session
manager
~~

E1E05 (B) [97.525, 97.3]
What is a VE?
A. An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow volunteer examiners to
administer amateur license examinations
B. An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur operator
license examinations
C. An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for a fee
D. An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to administer amateur
operator license examinations
~~

E1E06 (A) [97.509]
What is a VE team?
A. A group of at least three VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator
license
B. The VEC staff
C. One or two VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license
D. A group of FCC Volunteer Enforcers who investigate Amateur Rules violations
~~

E1E07 (C) [97.509]
Which of the following persons seeking to become VEs cannot be accredited?
A. Persons holding less than an Advanced Class operator license
B. Persons less than 21 years of age
C. Persons who have ever had an amateur operator or amateur station license suspended
or revoked
D. Persons who are employees of the federal government
~~

E1E08 (D) [97.5091, 97.525]
Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically
accredited as a VE when the license is granted
B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC
Enforcement Bureau
C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from a VE team
D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant me ets FCC requirements
to serve as an examiner
~~

E1E09 (A) [97.509]
Where must the VE team be while administering an examination?
A. All of the administering VEs must be present where they can observe the examinees
throughout the entire examination
B. The VEs must leave the room after handing out the exam(s) to allow the examinees
to concentrate on the exam material
C. The VEs may be elsewhere provided at least one VE is present and is observing the
examinees throughout the entire examination
D. The VEs may be anywhere as long as they each certify in writing that examination
was administered properly
~~

E1E10 (C) [97.509]
Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur
operator license examination session?
A. The VEC coordinating the session
B. The FCC
C. Each administering VE
D. The VE session manager
~~

E1E11 (B) [97.509]

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions
during an amateur operator license examination?
A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of
the examination
B. Immediately terminate the candidate’s examination
C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
D. Immediately terminate everyone’s examination and close the session
~~

E1E12 (C) [97.509]
To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
A. Employees of the VE
B. Friends of the VE
C. The VE’s close relatives as listed in the FCC rules
D. All these answers are correct
~~

E1E13 (A) [97.509]
What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an
examination?
A. Revocation of the VE’s amateur station license grant and the suspension of the
VE’s amateur operator license grant
B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
C. A sentence of up to one year in prison
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1E14 (C) [97.509] [edited, was E1F19, edited]
What must the VE team do with the examinee’s test papers once they have finished the
examination?
A. The VE team must collect and send them to the NCVEC
B. The VE team must collect and send them to the coordinating VEC for grading
C. The VE team must collect and grade them immediately
D. The VE team must collect and send them to the FCC for grading
~~

E1E15 (B) [97.509]
What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination
elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
A. Photocopy all examination documents and forwards them to the FCC for processing
B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and
that they have complied with the VE requirements
C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
D. All these answers are correct
~~

E1E16 (A) [97.509]
What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the
exam?
A. Return the application document to the examinee
B. Maintain the application form with the VEC’s records
C. Send it to the FCC
D. Destroy the application form
~~

E1E17 (A) [97.519]
What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an
examination when so directed by the FCC?
A. The licensee's license will be cancelled
B. The person may be fined or imprisoned
C. The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator
license grant
D. All of the above
~~

E1E18 (A) [97.527]
For which types of out-of-pocket expenses may VEs and VECs be reimbursed?
A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an
amateur radio license
B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
C. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
~~

E1E19 (A) [97.509, 97.527]
How much reimbursement may the VE team and VEC accept for preparing, processing,
administering and coordinating an examination?
A. Actual out-of-pocket expenses
B. The national minimum hourly wage for time spent providing examination services
C. Up to the maximum fee per examinee announced by the FCC annually
D. As much as the examinee is willing to donate
~~

E1E20 (C) [97.509]
What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner?
A. 13 years old
B. 16 years old
C. 18 years old
D. 21 years old
~~

E1F Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; Line A; national quiet zone;
business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary
stations; reciprocal operating privileges; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party
communications with foreign countries; special temporary authority

E1F01 (B) [97.305]
On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
~~

E1F02 (A) [97.5]
Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to
operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries
to operate in the US?
A. CEPT agreement
B. IARP agreement
C. ITU reciprocal license
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1F03 (B) [97.5]
Which of the following operating arrangements allow an FCC-licensed US citizen and
many Central and South American amateur operators to operate in each other’s
countries?
A. CEPT agreement
B. IARP agreement
C. ITU agreement
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1F04 (B) [97.315]
What does it mean if an external RF amplifier is listed on the FCC database as
certificated for use in the amateur service?
A. The RF amplifier may be marketed for use in any radio service
B. That particular RF amplifier may be marketed for use in the amateur service
C. All similar RF amplifiers produced by other manufacturers may be marketed
D. All RF amplifiers produced by that manufacturer may be marketed
~~

E1F05 (A) [97.315]
Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of
operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another
amateur operator for use at that operator's station
B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require
certification of RF power amplifiers
D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by
that country’s government
~~

E1F06 (A) [97.3]
Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
B. A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
C. A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline
~~

E1F07 (D) [97.303]
Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if
they are located north of Line A?
A. 440 - 450 MHz.
B. 53 - 54 MHz
C. 222 - 223 MHz
D. 420 - 430 MHz
~~

E1F08 (C) [97.3]
What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
~~

E1F09 (D) [97.113]
When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for providing
communication services to another party?
A. When the repeater is operating under portable power
B. When the repeater is operating under local control
C. During Red Cross or other emergency service drills
D. Under no circumstances
~~

E1F10 (D) [97.113]
When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25
B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
C. When transmitting international third-party communications
D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the
communications
~~

E1F11 (A) [97.113]
Which of the following types of amateur-operator-to-amateur-operator communications
are prohibited?
A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise
provided in the rules
B. Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness
Doctrine
C. Communications that have a religious content
D. Communications in a language other than English
~~

E1F12 (D) [97.311]
FCC-licensed amateur stations may use spread spectrum (SS) emissi ons to communicate
under which of the following conditions?
A. When the other station is in an area regulated by the FCC
B. When the other station is in a country permitting SS communications
C. When the transmission is not used to obscure the meaning of any communication
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1F13 (C) [97.311]
What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread
spectrum communications?
A. 1 W
B. 1.5 W
C. 100 W
D. 1.5 kW
~~

E1F14 (D) [97.317]
Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an
external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF
input power
B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at its full
output power
~~

E1F15 (B) [97.201]
Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
A. Any licensed amateur operator
B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators
~~

E1F16 (C) [97.117]
What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign
countries?
A. Business-related messages
B. Automatic retransmissions of any amateur communications
C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a
personal nature
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1F17 (A) [1.931]
Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to
an amateur station?
A. To provide for experimental amateur communications
B. To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
C. To provide additional spectru m for personal use
D. To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
~~

SUBELEMENT E2 - OPERATING PRACTICES AND PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups]

E2A Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and
modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations

E2A01 (C)
What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
A. From west to east
B. From east to west
C. From south to north
D. From north to south
~~

E2A02 (A)
What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
A. From north to south
B. From west to east
C. From east to west
D. From south to north
~~

E2A03 (C)
What is the orbital period of a satellite?
A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
~~

E2A04 (B)
What is meant by the term “mode” as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
A. The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
C. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
D. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
~~

E2A05 (D)
What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
B. The location of the ground control station
C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
D. The uplink and downlink frequencies
~~

E2A06 (A)
On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in
mode U/V?
A. 432 MHz
B. 144 MHz
C. 50 MHz
D. 28 MHz
~~

E2A07 (D)
Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
A. FM and CW
B. SSB and SSTV
C. PSK and Packet
D. All these answers are correct
~~

E2A08 (B)
What is the primary reason for satellite users to limit their transmit ERP?
A. For RF exposure safety
B. Because the satellite transmitter output power is limited
C. To avoid limiting the signal of the other users
D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
~~

E2A09 (A)
What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?
A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
B. The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
C. FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
D. Which sideband to use
~~

E2A10 (A)
Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating
fading effect?
A. Because the satellite is rotating
B. Because of ionospheric absorption
C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
D. Because of the Doppler effect
~~

E2A11 (B)
What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and
Faraday rotation?
A. A linearly polarized antenna
B. A circularly polarized antenna
C. An isotropic antenna
D. A log-periodic dipole array
~~

E2A12 (D)
What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
A. By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
B. By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
C. By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
D. By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
~~

E2A13 (B)
What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
A. HEO
B. Geosynchronous
C. Geomagnetic
D. LEO
~~

E2A14 (B)
What happens to a satellite's transmitted signal due to the Doppler Effect?
A. The signal strength is reduced as the satellite passes overhead
B. The signal frequency shifts lower as the satellite passes overhead
C. The signal frequency shifts higher as the satellite passes overhead
D. The polarization of the signal continually rotates
~~

E2B Television practices: fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan
television standards and techniques

E2B01 (A)[edited]
How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television
system?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
~~

E2B02 (C)
How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 525
D. 1080
~~

E2B03 (D)
How is an interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television
system?
A. By scanning two fields simultaneously
B. By scanning each field from bottom to top
C. By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next
~~

E2B04 (B)
What is blanking in a video signal?
A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from
bottom to top
C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern
~~

E2B05 (C)
Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast
scan TV transmissions?
A. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
B. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video
detector circuitry
D. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
~~

E2B06 (A)
What is vestigial sideband modulation?
A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of
the other sideband is transmitted
B. A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
C. Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from
the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
D. Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single
sideband amplitude modulation
~~

E2B07 (B)
What is the name of the video signal component that carries color information?
A. Luminance
B. Chroma
C. Hue
D. Spectral Intensity
~~

E2B08 (D)
Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with
amateur fast-scan television?
A. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
B. A separate VHF or UHF audio link
C. Frequency modulation of the video carrier
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E2B09 (D)
What hardware, other than a transceiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer,
is needed to decode SSTV based on Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
A. A special IF converter
B. A special front end limiter
C. A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
D. No other hardware is needed
~~

E2B10 (A)
Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)
based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?
A. 3 KHz
B. 10 KHz
C. 15 KHz
D. 20 KHz
~~

E2B11 (B)
What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code transmitted as
part of an SSTV transmission?
A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
B. To identify the SSTV mode being used
C. To provide vertical synchronization
D. To identify the callsign of the station transmitting
~~

E2B12 (D)
How are analog slow-scan television images typically transmitt ed on the HF bands?
A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using FM
D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single
sideband
~~

E2B13 (C)
How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color
television picture?
A. 30 to 60
B. 60 or 100
C. 128 or 256
D. 180 or 360
~~

E2B14 (A)
What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the
picture?
A. Tone frequency
B. Tone amplitude
C. Sync amplitude
D. Sync frequency
~~

E2B15 (A)
What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?
A. Specific tone frequencies
B. Elapsed time
C. Specific tone amplitudes
D. A two-tone signal
~~

E2B16 (D)
Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV
stations?
A. PAL
B. DRM
C. Scottie
D. NTSC
~~

E2B17 (A)
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur
Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television?
A. Immunity from fading due to limiting
B. Poor weak signal performance
C. Greater signal bandwidth
D. Greater complexity of receiving equipment
~~

E2B18 (B)
What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?
A. 600 Hz
B. 3 kHz
C. 2 MHz
D. 6 MHz
~~

E2B19 (D)
On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FMTV transmissions?
A. 14.230 MHz
B. 29.6 MHz
C. 52.525 MHz
D. 1255 MHz
~~

E2B20 (C)
What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV
transmissions?
A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater
than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz
~~

E2B21 (B) [NEW, adapted from E2B16]
If 100 IRE units correspond to the most-white level in the NTSC standard video
format, what is the level of the most-black signal?
A. 140 IRE units
B. 7.5 IRE units
C. 0 IRE units
D. -40 IRE units
~~

E2C Operating methods, part 1: contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum
transmissions; automatic HF forwarding; selecting an operating frequency

E2C01 (A)
Which of the following is true about contest operating?
A. Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
B. Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
C. It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of
every transmission to that station
D. Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
~~

E2C02 (A)
Which of the following best describes “self spotting” in regards to contest
operating?
A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one’s own call sign and frequency on
a call sign spotting network
B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call
sign spotting network
C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station’s frequency
before calling that station
D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station’s frequency
before calling that station
~~

E2C03 (A)
From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
A. 30 meters
B. 6 meters
C. 2 meters
D. 33 cm
~~

E2C04 (D)
On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally
discouraged?
A. 3.525 MHz
B. 14.020 MHz
C. 28.330 MHz
D. 146.52 MHz
~~

E2C05 (B) [97.301]
Which of the following frequencies would generally be acceptable for U.S. stations to
work other U.S. stations in a phone contest?
A. 5405 kHz
B. 14.310 MHz
C. 50.050 MHz
D. 146.52 MHz
~~

E2C06 (C)
During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest
level of activity?
A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling fr equency
C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling
frequency
D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
~~

E2C07 (A)
What is the Cabrillo format?
A. A standard for organizing information in contest log files
B. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
C. The most common set of contest rules
D. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
~~

E2C08 (A)
Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?
A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being
easily overpowered
C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to
change frequencies
~~

E2C09 (D)
How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (F H) work?
A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to
change frequencies
B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait
until the frequency is clear
C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very
rapidly in a particular sequence
D. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a
particular sequence also used by the receiving station
~~

E2C10 (D)
Why might a phone DX station state that he is listening on another frequency?
A. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to
some responding stations
B. To separate the calling stations from the DX station
C. To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E2C11 (A)
How should you generally sign your call when attempting to contact a DX station
working a “pileup” or in a contest?
A. Send your full call sign once or twice
B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
C. Send your full call sign and grid square
D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your
call sign three times
~~

E2C12 (B)
In North America during low sunspot activity, when signals from Europe become weak
and fluttery across an entire HF band two to three hours after sunset, what might
help to contact other European DX stations?
A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band
B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band
C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
D. Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
~~

E2D Operating methods, part 2: VHF and UHF digital modes; packet clusters; Automatic
Position Reporting System (APRS)

E2D01 (B)
What does “command mode” mean in packet operations?
A. Your computer is ready to run packet communications software
B. The TNC is ready to receive instructions via the keyboard
C. Your TNC has received a command packet from a remote TNC
D. The computer is ready to be set up to communicate with the TNC
~~

E2D02 (A)
What is the definition of “baud”?
A. The number of data symbols transmitted per second
B. The number of characters transmitted per second
C. The number of characters transmitted per minute
D. The number of words transmitted per minute
~~

E2D03 (A)
Which of the follow is true when comparing HF and 2-meter packet operations?
A. HF packet typically uses FSK with a data rate of 300 baud; 2-meter packet uses
AFSK with a data rate of 1200 baud
B. HF packet and 2-meter packet operations use different codes for information
exchange
C. HF packet is limited to Amateur Extra class amateur licensees; 2-meter packet is
open to all but Novice Class amateur licensees
D. HF and 2-meter packet operations are both limited to CW/Data-only band segments
~~

E2D04 (C)
What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur satellite?
A. To upload operational software for the transponder
B. To delay download of telemetry until the satellite is over the control station
C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
D. To relay messages between satellites
~~

E2D05 (B)
Which of the following techniques is normally used by low-earth or biting digital
satellites to relay messages around the world?
A. Digipeating
B. Store-and-forward
C. Multi-satellite relaying
D. Node hopping
~~

E2D06 (B)
Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?
A. 144.20 MHz
B. 144.39 MHz
C. 145.02 MHz
D. 146.52 MHz
~~

E2D07 (A)
Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
A. AX.25
B. 802.11
C. PACTOR
D. AMTOR
~~

E2D08 (D)
Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
A. Connect frames
B. Disconnect frames
C. Acknowledgement frames
D. Unnumbered Information frames
~~

E2D09 (D)
Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes
has the fastest data throughput?
A. AMTOR
B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
C. PSK31
D. 300-baud packet
~~

E2D10 (C)
How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications
activity?
A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit
medical data to the nearest hospital
B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the
participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a
mobile station's position during the event
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E2D11 (D)
Which of the following data sources are needed to accurately transmit your
geographical location over the APRS network?
A. The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellite
receiver
B. The latitude and longitude of your location, preferably in degrees, minutes and
seconds, entered into the APRS computer software
C. The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a LORAN navigation system
D. Any of these choices is correct
~~